CURRENT AFFAIRS




Bank General Awareness practice set 1



1. SBI commercial & International Bank Limited acquired by ...........?
1) Reserve Bank of India
2) Ministry of Commerce
3) SEBI
4) State bank of India
5) None

2. RBI ordered that more than what denomination the Demand Drafts should not be issued against Cash, particularly by RRBs?
1) Rs.1000
2) Rs.10,000
3) Rs.50,000
4) Rs.1,50,000
5)None

3. LIC(Life Insurance Corporation of India) made a pact to issue Credit Cards with ...........?
1) HDFC
2) AXIS Bank
3) Corporation Bank
4) ICICI
5) Andhra Bank

4. Recently EXIM Bank (Export and Import Bank of India) provided $ 20 million line of credit to...........?
1) Switzerland
2) Zimbwabe
3) Swaziland
4) Australia
5) New Zealand

5. Karnataka State Highway improvement project got $ 315 million from ...........?
1) Asian Development Bank
2) World Bank
3) IMF
4) AFD
5) ODA

6. Most active segment of the money market in India is...........?
1) Repo rate
2) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
3) Call money market
4) Certificate of Deposits market
5) Term note market

7. Syndicated loan means ...........?
1) the loan offered to BPL families
2) loan offered to one bank by different states in India
3) loan taken by different borrowers from one bank in the single account
4) loan given by the group of banks to single borrower
5) loans ban by RBI

8. India signed to get Rs. 1600 cr from German Bank to finance world biggest solar power plants in Dhule district of
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Karnataka
3) Mysore
4) Maharastra
5) Goa

9. $ 200 million will be given to power distribution in Madhya Pradesh by ….
1) World Bank
2) Asian development Bank
3) AFD
4) International Monetary Fund
5) IFC

10. $ 648 million to be provided by world bank to construct 444 MW hydro power project in...........
1) Uttarakhand
2) Uttar Pradesh
3) Assom
4) Goa
5) Rajasthan

11. LIBOR (London Inter bank Offered Rate) being published by...........
1) BSE
2) Thomson Reuters
3) Washington Post
4) New York Times
5) London University

12. Till Kharif 2010, how many farmers covered under National Agriculture Insurance Scheme ...........
1) 20.25 crore
2) 18.65 crore
3) 12.4 crore
4) 9.6 crore
5) 17.14 crore

13. Center for Monitoring Indian Economy estimated 2011-12 fiscal year growth will be............percent?
1) 5.2
2) 9.1
3) 8.1
4) 10.5
5) 9.5

14. Rastriya Arogya Nidhi available to...........to get medical assistance.
1) The inhabitants of poor states
2) The inhabitants of North eastern states
3) BPL families
4) MGNREGA domestic workers only
5) None

15. Dal Bhat Scheme provides a meal for Rs.5 to poor. This is the scheme of...........?
1) Bihar
2) Tamilnadu
3) Arunachal Pradesh
4) Jharkhand
5) Assam

16. Which state has idea of bringing the federations of Self Help Groups (SHG)?
1) Karnataka
2) Maharastra
3) Andhra Pradesh
4) Tamilnadu
5) Uttar Pradesh

17. The chairman of Parliamentary standing committee on Law and Justice?
1) Murali Manohar Joshi
2) P.C.Chako
3) L.K.Advani
4)Yashwanth Sinha
5) Abhisheik Manu Singhvi

18. On 21 July 2011, for the defence pensioners which scheme launched?
1) Sudha
2) Suvidha
3 ) Sugam
4) Saral
5) Sangam

19. International Atomic Energy Agency was invited by India to visit ........... Nuclear plant recently?
1) Apsara
2) Druva
3) Kalpakam
4) Jaitapur
5) None

20. Kaveri Engine to be used in light combat aircraft ( LAC). This engine to be developed with the aid of...........?
1) France
2) USA
3) UK
4) Germany
5) Japan

21. Recently India and which country sign memorandum of understanding in the cooperation of Rural Development?
1) Brunai
2) Laos
3) Lesotho
4) South Africa
5) None

22. Who heads the panel to estimate the losses of power distribution companies in 2007-2010?
1) Narla Tatha Rao
2) Vidhya Sagar
3) V.K.Shunglu
4) Shantharam
5) Vijay C Kelkar

23. On August 13 , 2011 which multiple missile trail version successful?
1) Agni - II
2) Pruthvi- I
3) Nag
4) Akash
5) Brahmos - III

24. Fifth conference of SAARC speakers and parliamentarians held recently in..........
1) New Delhi
2) Mumbai
3) London
4) Dhaka
5) Male

25. Presently India is the third largest producer of Steel in the world. It becomes the second Largest producer by which year as per the estimate of central government recently?
1) 2013
2) 2020
3) 2045
4) 2050
5) 2015

26. Sevottam Certificate got by...........?
1) GPO, Mumbai
2) GPO, Rastrapathi Bhavan
3) GPO, Hyderabad
4) Gol Dak Khana, the Newdelhi GPO
5) All of above

27. Bank deposits grow by ...........percent during the March 2011- July 2011?
1) 8
2) 5.5
3) 6.1
4) 7
5) 9

28. Raise in inflation rate leads to decline in ...........?
1) interest rate
2) raise in the deposits in the banks
3) decrease the real interest rate
4) raise the credit growth by banks
5) None

29. Difference between interest earned and interest paid is called ..........?
1) Gross Interest Income
2) Paid Interest Income
3) Free Interest Income
4) Net Interest Income
5) All of above

30. Express Remit is the brand name remittance facility of ...........?
1) SBH
2) Allahabad Bank
3) Repco Bank
4) UBI
5) SBI

31. Rs.1000 can be withdrawn from the Point of Sales Terminals ( POS) as per the order of RBI. Which is the first bank to introduce this facility?
1) SBI
2) SBH
3) Union Bank of India
4) ICICI
5) HDFC

32. Recently RBI advised the banks to reduce the Net Interest Margin (NIM) come down to see the double digit growth. What is meant by it ...........
1) Banks accept the deposits at high rate of interest and lend at higher rate of interest
2) Banks accept the deposits at high rate of interest and lend at no rate of interest
3) Banks accept the deposits at high rate of interest and lend at lower rate than the present rates
4) Banks accept the deposits at lower rate of interest and lend at higher rate
5) None

33. Interest Corridor includes ...........?
1) Base rate and savings rate
2) Bank rate and Reverse Repo rate
3) Base rate and Repo rate
4) Repo rate and Reverse Repo rate
5) None

34. Asset-Liability mismatch usually happened in...........?
1) Home Loan and Infrastructure Project Financing
2) Education loan and personal loan
3) Personal loan and marriage loan
4) Travel loan and marriage loan
5) Education loan and School Fees

35. First Dedicated Education Loan Company CREDILA is the associate body of...........?
1) HDFC
2) Andhra Bank
3) United Bank of India
4) Axis bank
5) SBH

36. Portal-linked service, which enables a dissatisfied customer to SMS 'unhappy' to 8008202020, if he is a customer of...........this is the first of its kind in India?
1) SBI
2) IDBI
3)HDFC
4) ICICI
5) Indian bank

37. INFINET is a communication channel for transmission of electronic communication by banks. INFINET stands for...........?
1) Indian Financial Internal Network Electronic Transaction
2) Indian Financial Internal Network
3) Indian National Financial Internal Net Extra Track
4) Indian Financial Network
5) None

38. RBI subsidiary BRBNMPL related statements are given. Pick the incorrect one?
1) Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited was established by RBI
2) its wholly owned subsidiary of RBI established on 3rd February 1995
3) It is established to handover the functions of RBI to mint currency
4) It is established to bridge the gap between the supply and demand for bank notes in the country.
5) The company manages 2 Presses one at Mysore in Karnataka and the other at Salboni in West Bengal.

39. Rohinton Nariman is the new ...........of India?
1) Election Commissioner
2) Auditor General
3) Solicitor General
4) Army General
5) RBI Governor

40. 110th constitutional amendment bill connected to...........?
1) Reservation of woman local bodies
2) Reservation of SC and ST in the Assembly elections
3) Jan lokpal Bill
4) GST council
5) Direct Taxes Code

41. Rs.117.64 Crores released by the Central Government to promote production of...........?
1) Tobacco
2) Food grains
3) Nutri-cereals
4) Pulses
5) Rice

42. Sucheta becomes first Indian woman to cross ...........?
1) Antartica
2) Arctic Ocean
3) Sahara Desert
4) Gobi Desert
5) Suez Canal

43. Standard & Poor downgrades USA AAA credit rating to
1) AAA ++
2) AAB
3) BBB
4) AA+
5) AB+

44. Which coach became first one to train 100 cricket test matches in the world?
1) Waqar Younus
2) Greg Chappel
3) Duncan Fletcher
4) David Boon
5) Kapil Dev

45. 2014 FIFA world Cup to be held from 12 June to 13 July in
1) London (Britain)
2) Rio ( Brazil)
3) Incheon (South Korea)
4) Washington (USA)
5) None

46. Who was called the Doctor Death, died recently, helped many people to die, if they are suffering from the dreaded and long time diseases?
1) Dr. Subodh Roy
2) Kimitachi Penogogi
3) Dr.Jack Kevorkian
4) Dr. Shantha Singh
5) None

47. India-South Africa trade to touch $………...billion before 2014?
1) 25
2) 10
3) 50
4) 15
5) 60

48. Modi cup is related to……….?
1) Cricket
2) Golf
3) Hockey
4) Tennis
5) Carrom

49. Arasu Cable TV Corporation belongs to the state of ………..?
1) Tamilnadu
2) Kerala
3) Andhra Pradesh
4) Puduccherry
5) None

50. Direct Tax do not include ………..?
1) Income Tax
2) Corporate Duty
3) Service Tax
4) Sales Tax
5) Wealth Tax

1)4 2)3 3)2 4)3 5)1 6)3 7)4 8)4 9)2 10)1
11)2 12)5 13)3 14)3 15)4 16)3 17)5 18)5 19)4 20)1
21)3 22)3 23)5 24)1 25)1 26)4 27)2 28)3 29)4 30)5
31)3 32)3 33)4 34)1 35)1 36)1 37)4 38)3 39)3 40)1
41)3 42)4 43)4 44)3 45)2 46)3 47)4 48)3 49)1 50)4


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BANK GENERAL AFFAIRS PRACTICE TEST -2



1. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The licence to open branches of bank is granted by Board of Directors of that Bank
b) There is no need of licenses to open branch of a bank
c) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Central Government
d) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the provisions of Banking Regulation Act, 1949

2. The important condition for granting licence of banking companies is?
a) Banking company need not plan to pay for future depositors
b) Banking company can plan for its capital structure once the licence is granted
c) The business undertaken by the banking company should not frustrate the interest of public
d) The banking company can undertake business other than banking with the permission of annual general body

3. Who of the following is not a party to the IPO?
a) Registrar of Issue
b) Investment Banker
c) Advertisement Agency
d) Registrar of Companies

4. Which of the following is not shown as an asset in the balance sheet of a Bank?
a) Investments
b) Advances
c) Cash Balances with other banks
d) Borrowings

5. The credit policy of a bank does not consists of?
a) Lending policies
b) Quality control
c) Loan product mix
d) Advertising of loan products

6. Which of the following is a function of the agent bank relating to flow of money in the process of loan syndication?
a) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan
b) Calling of loans in the event of default
c) Receiving the fee from the borrower and distributing among the participating banks
d) Receiving notices relating to transfers of banks

7. Which of the following is the parameter to recognize the SSI unit as sick unit?
a) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 25% of its net worth during the previous account year
b) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 50% of its net worth during the previous account year.
c) The unit should have been in commercial production for at least five years
d) Lack of updations in technological development

8. Which of the following is not the service provided by the Small Industries Service Institute?
a) Providing entrepreneurship development programs
b) Developmental efforts
c) Export promotion and liaison activities
d) Financial support

9. Service Area Approach (SAA) is associated with?
a) Rural and Semi-urban branches of commercial banks
b) Urban branches of commercial banks
c) Branches of commercial banks situated in metro cities
d) Development banks

10. Which of the following cannot be securitized?
a) Future rentals of a fishing boat
b) Hire purchase receivables
c) Demand drafts received by the banker during clearing
d) Future billings for an airline

11. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The special purpose vehicle (SPV) purchases the assets from the borrower directly during the securitization
b) The originator and obligor are the same persons in securitization process
c) Administrator collects the payments due from the obligor and passes it to the SPV and follows with defaulters
d) Mortgage based securitization provides high yields to the investor

12. The important feature of an anticipatory letter of credit is that?
a) The letter of credit can be used as back- to- back letters of credit
b) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the pre-shipment stage
c) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the post-shipment stage
d) The cash advance is not permitted against such letter of credits

13. The Shipping guarantee is a?
a) Type of a letter of credit
b) Guarantee issued by the ship captain to the purchaser
c) Guarantee issued to the borrower towards the loan granted by the shipping company
d) Deferred payment guarantee issued by a banker at the request of the consignee when the documents are not received and goods are received, for facilitating the delivery of goods.

14. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The charge card is a credit instrument
b) Under this facility the cardholders need to pay amount within ten installments
c) Cardholder has to pay the 100% of the purchase amount within 30 days of purchase
d) The charge card shall have revolving credit

15. Which of the following is not augmented feature of a credit card?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawals
c) Add-on facility
d) Issue of deferred guarantee

16. Which of the following is the disadvantage of going for public issue?
a) Liquidity to existing shares
b) Increase in visibility and reputation to the company
c) Better pricing and placement with new investors
d) Need to make continuous disclosures

17. Which of the following is not a criterion to select the Investment Bankers?
a) No professional memberships or incorporations are required
b) General reputation in the market
c) Good rapport with market intermediaries
d) Distribution net work of the organization

18. Which of the following is not an asset of a bank?
a) Notes and small coins
b) Overdue recurring deposits
c) Short term loans
d) Staff advances

19. The banking company has restriction to sanction loan to?
a) Directors of the bank
b) Staff working in the bank
c) Students going abroad
d) Professionals

20. Which of the following is a non-depository institution?
a) Credit unions
b) Commercial banks
c) Mutual funds
d) Regional rural banks

21. The disadvantage associated with leasing company is?
a) Low costs
b) Flexibility in payments
c) Eliminates the risk of obsolescence
d) High competitions because of entry to all financial institutions

22. Which of the following theory is associated with the financial system in the economic growth?
a) Retributive theory
b) Reformative theory
c) Financial repression theory
d) Jurisdictional theory

23.Which of the following is not a financial intermediary in the financial markets?
a) Pension funds
b) Credit unions
c) Life insurance companies
d) Small scale service institute.

24 Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank?
a) Registration of charges and mortgages
b) Transactions services
c) Asset transaction
d) Real-time Gross Settlement

25. Which of the following is one of the three pillars of new Basel Capital Award?
a) Market competitions
b) Market rapport
c) Market discipline
d) International market relations

26. The interest in savings bank accounts of a bank is calculated on?
a) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last day of month
b) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last of month
c) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last day of month
d) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last of month

27. The credit policy of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Documentation standards
c) Review and renewal of advances
d) Outstanding balances in deposit accounts

28. Issuing credit cards is a component of ?
a) Corporate banking
b) Rural banking
c) Retail banking
d) Micro finance

29. The origin of bank instruments can be traced to?
a) The priests and worship places of public deposits
b) Goldsmith receipts
c) Bonds issued by the British Government in India
d) Bank notes issued by Bank of Venice

30. Which of the following is not the function of commercial banks?
a) Providing transaction services
b) Intermediation in financial services
c) Providing transformation services
d) Regulating the issue of bank notes.

31 Which of the following is the most important challenge before the commercial bank?
a) Maintenance of foreign currency
b) Evaluating the need of the customers
c) Maintenance of SLR and CRR
d) Meet the technological revolution

32. The asset's side of balance sheet consists of ?
a) Cash balances with other banks
b) Fixed deposits of customers
c) Savings deposits
d) Recurring deposits

33. Which of the following is an income for a bank?
a) Depreciation on bank's property
b) Interest on inter bank borrowings
c) Profit on revaluation of investments
d) Provisions made on account of write-offs

34. Saving Bank Account can be opened in the name of ?
a) State text book printing corporations
b) District level housing cooperative societies
c) Communist Party of India
d) Aravind Samuel, Anurag Deepak and Amarish Sugandhi Jointly

35. The interest on recurring deposit is paid on the basis of ?
a) Simple interest calculated monthly basis
b) Simple interest on monthly products basis
c) Quarterly compounding
d) Interest calculated on daily products basis

36. Which of the following statements is true?
i. Term deposits are non-transaction deposits
ii. Cheques can be issued on short-term deposits
iii. All term deposits are interest bearing deposits
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i) and (iii)

37. The credit policy laid down by the top management of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Pricing of the credit products
c) Appraisal of time and demand deposits
d) Documentation standards.

38. Which of the following factors is not required to be considered to analyze the repayment capacity of a borrower?
a) Working capital management
b) Personal educational qualifications
c) Financial leverage
d) Interest rate risk management

39. Which of the following is a facilitating service of core loan products of retail banking services?
a) Current or savings accounts
b) Legal services for documentation
c) Delivery of loan at promised time period
d) Flexibility in prepayment of loan

40. Which of the following is an most important advantage of retail banking on the resource side?
a) Consumer loans are low risk products
b) Innovative product development and disbursal
c) Increases the subsidiary business of a bank
d) Requires less efforts to market retail loan products

41. Lenders may not provide trade-offs to the borrowers on the basic term of consumer installment credit relating to?
a) Interest rate
b) Maturity of the loan
c) Maturity of the deposit
d) Quantum of finance

42. Which of the following is the risk associated with the retail banking?
a) Strong recovery strategy
b) Definite lending limits
c) Effective credit process and proposals
d) Inadequate risk pricing

43 The advantage of consortium finance is?
i. Speedy transactions and individual approach
ii. Involvement of huge amounts
iii. Use of expertise of all the banks
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

44 Which of the following is not a function of the agent bank in loan syndication?
a) Ensuring the compliance of conditions precedent under the loan agreement
b) Determining the LIBOR interest rate for each interest rate
c) Planning for future syndication of loans
d) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan

45. Which of the following is not a phase/step in the formation of loan syndication?
a) Finalization of supply agreement
b) Identify the needs of the borrower
c) Preparation of information memorandum
d) Invite other banks to participate

46. Which of the following statements is true?
a) SSI is an undertaking in which the investments in fixed assets in plant and machinery does not exceed one million
b) Small and medium enterprises both in size and shape are not homogenous in nature
c) The small and medium enterprises contribution towards the GDP is nominal
d) Small and medium enterprises do not support the large industries.

47. The Nayak Committee has suggested the turnover method for assessing the working capital and pegged it at?
a) 15% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
b) 20% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
c) 25% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
d) 30% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit

48. Which of the following is not a part of the rehabilitation package granted for revival of sick industry?
a) Waiver of penal interests
b) Funding by sanctioning of term loans towards the unpaid installments of loans
c) Grant of additional working capital loans
d) Not demanding the promoters contribution towards the rehabilitation package

49. Service Area Approach is associated with?
a) Industrial finance
b) Microfinance
c) Rural finance
d) Consortium finance

50. Which of the following resources cannot be securitized?
a) Credit balances outstanding in cash credit accounts
b) Credit Card receivables
c) Hire purchase receivable
d) Mortgage in lieu of future payments

51. Which of the following is a type of anticipatory letter of credit?
a) Green clause letter of credit
b) Yellow clause letter of credit
c) Back to back letters of credit
d) Revolving letter of credit

52. Performance guarantee is issued?
a) In lieu of earnest money
b) In lieu of retention money
c) In lieu of indemnity bonds
d) For successful competition of Turnkey projects

53. Which of the following is not a transfer of funds by using the electronic media?
a) Mail transfer of funds
b) Telegraphic transfer of funds
c) Electronic credit transfers
d) Electronic clearing transfers

54. Which of the following is not an augmenting feature of credit cards?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawal facility
c) Add-On facility
d) Automatic recovery of interest on term loans

55 Which of the following is a disadvantage of going public issue?
a) Provides liquidity to existing shares
b) Commands better pricing than placement with few investors
c) Increased regulatory norms
d) Enables valuation of the company

56 Which of the following is not a reason for regulating the banking operations?
a) Banks hold a major portion of the public savings
b) Banks intermediate between the savings and investments
c) Banks hold a large part of the money supply
d) Banks earn profit from non-fund services

57. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Resave Bank of India empowers the banks to open branches according to their will and pleasure
b) Reserve Bank of India is a central bank which monitors only lending activities pertaining to export credit
c) Banks have authority to establish the ATMs at their convenience
d) Rural banks of commercial banks do not have freedom to issue credit cards

58. When the customer withdraws cash from ATM, the banker and customer relation ship is?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Creditor and Debtor
c) Lessor and Lessee
d) Agent and principal

59. Which of the following is a public sector Bank?
a) IDBI
b) ICICI
c) AXIS
d) HDFC

60. Trade control in India is regulated by?
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) EXIM Bank
d) DGFT

61 Which of the following businesses is prohibited as per Sec 8 of B.R Act 1949?
a) Executing the trusts
b) Leasing
c) Retail trading
d) Underwriting

62. Which of the following is not one of the essential elements of internal audit?
a) Totality
b) Expertise
c) Independence
d) Subjectivity

63. The letter of credit, which facilitates the exporter to get pre- shipment finance (from the stage of purchase of raw material until the warehousing of the finished goods) from advising bank is called?
a) Red Clause LC
b) Lines of credit
c) Packing credit loan
d) Green Clause LC

64. A term loan is classified as a non-performing asset, if interest or installment is overdue for period exceeding how many days?
a) 90
b) 91
c) 180
d) 182

65. Which of the following is an interest bearing demand deposit?
a) Time Deposit
b) Re-investment deposits
c) Cash Certificates
d) Savings Bank account

66. Debt Recovery Tribunals accept petitions from Banks and financial institutions, only when the amount of suit is for Rs?
a) 1 00 000 and above
b) 5 00 000 and above
c) 7 50 000 and above
d) 10 00 000 and above

67. An endorsement is deemed as an instruction to?
a) Collecting Bank
b) Paying Bank
c) Drawer
d) Payee

68. Ideal Credit deposit ratio for a bank is?
a) 60%
b) 40%
c) 90%
d) 30%

69. The rate at which RBI rediscounts the bills of commercial banks is called as?
a) Bank Rate
b) Prime Lending rate
c) Repo rate
d) BPLR

70. Which of the following is not one of the RBI directives on clean note policy?
a) Currency note packets are not to be stapled and secured with paper bands
b) Soiled notes are to be stapled before they are remitted to Currency Chest.
c) Water mark window of bank notes shall not contain any writings
d) Currency notes are to be sorted in to Issuable and non-issuable notes.

71. Which of the following committees are related to 'Micro financing'?
a) Nayak Committee
b) Tandon committee
c) Vyas Committee
d) Narasimham committee

72. The relation ship between RBI and the Bank maintaining the currency chest is that of?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Principal and Agent
c) Bailor and Bailee
d) Creditor and Debtor

73. Normally, the number of members in a self Help Group shall not exceed?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 50
d) 15

74. Short fall in fulfilling the targets of Priority sector and agricultural finance by domestic commercial banks shall be deposited with/in?
a) RIDF
b) SIDBI
c) RBI
d) IDBI

75. The maturity value of a Recurring deposit with a monthly contribution of Rs 500 kept for a period of 12 months, at 9% interest rate compounded quarterly would be Rs.?
a) 6, 265
b) 6, 625
c) 7, 255
d) 7, 555

76. Which of the following is not an imperfect note?
a) Washed note
b) Bleached note
c) Mutilated note
d) Oiled note

77. Credit rating helps in measuring the credit risk and facilitates?
a) Considering higher credit limits
b) Making loan provisioning at an early stage
c) Accurately calculate the probable loan losses
d) Pricing of a loan

78. The Reverse Repo has the following characteristic?
a) Borrowing by RBI from banks
b) Borrowing with government security as collateral
c) Short term borrowing
d) All of these

79. Under the Nayak Committee recommendations, the quantum of working capital limits from the bank is minimum percentage of the projected annual sales?
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%

80. Banks insist on providing finance for those projects or activities only which they consider to be viable. What is meant by viability of project?
a) Capacity to generate cash, adequate to service debt and surplus for borrower's personal requirement.
b) Generation of cash to meet debt liability
c) Generation of profits.
d) Generation of gross profits

81. Letter of negative lien obtained from borrower by a bank contains?
a) An undertaking that the property mortgaged to the bank is his own
b) A confirmation that the borrower had earlier deposited title deeds to create mortgage on the property.
c) An undertaking not to create any encumbrance/lien on the property which he owns but not yet mortgaged to the bank
d) A declaration that he is the joint owner of the property furnishing the details of his share and valuation thereof.

82. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a) Consortium advances to be treated as NPA on the basis of recovery by individual banks
b) If one facility of a borrower is treated as NPA other facilities to him also to be treated as NPA even if there are no irregularities in that account.
c) Consortium must be formed if the total exposure of fund based limit exceeds Rs 100 crore.
d) Both (a) and (b)

83. If an IPO is under-priced, which of the following can be considered as consequences/implications of the same?
I. The company looses the opportunity to raise more funds
II. Under pricing would give less returns to the investor
III. Under pricing results in lower net worth on an increased equity.
a) Only (II) above
b) Only (III) above
c) Both (I) and (III) above
d) Both (II) and (III) above all.

84. Corporate Bank files suit for recovery of its loan against the guarantor only and not the borrower. Guarantor pleads in the court that before filing suit against him, money should be recovered from the borrower. In such circumstances, the bank can seek recourse in the court against?
a) All the liable parties together only
b) Any one of them at a time
c) All separately
d) At its discretion it can proceed against any one

85. A letter of credit (LC) wherein the credit available to the customer gets reinstated after the bill is paid is known as?
a) Back to back LC
b) Red clause LC
c) Back to front LC
d) Revolving LC

86. Regional Rural Banks are?
a) Private Sector scheduled commercial banks
b) Cooperative banks
c) Foreign banks
d) Public sector scheduled commercial banks

87. Large corporate customers demand?
a) Short term products from their banks irrespective of the cost at their times of need.
b) Increasingly sophisticated products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
c) Disintegrated financial products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
d) Basic banking products from their banks but with speed and efficiency.

88. Funded Services under corporate banking does not include?
a) Working Capital Finance
b) Bill Discounting
c) Export Credit
d) Letters of Credit

89. Which of the following is not directly involved in rural lending?
a) Cooperatives
b) RRBs
c) Commercial banks
d) SIDBI

90. PACSs provide?
a) Mainly long term credit
b) Mainly short term credit
c) Both long term and short term credit
d) Do not provide any credit

91. The purpose of which is to make credit of available to essential sectors of the economy according to national priorities?
a) Selective Credit Control (SCC)
b) Maintenance of cash reserve
c) Reserve fund
d) Comprehensive Credit Control

92. The system of note issue followed by the RBI is?
a) Proportional reserve system
b) Minimum reserve system
c) Minimum fiduciary system
d) Maximum fiduciary system

93. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to the commercial banks in very short term against the backing of the Government securities is known as?
a) Bank rate
b) Repo rate
c) Reverse Repo
d) Discount rate

94. Scheduled banks are those?
a) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Banking Regulation Act-1949
b) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Companies Act-1956
c) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act -1934
d) Bank Nationalization Act -1969

95. The following is classified as a public sector bank?
a) ICICI Bank
b) IDBI Bank Ltd
c) Axis Bank
d) Local area bank

96. The banker-customer relationship in credit card payment is?
a) Creditor-debtor
b) Debtor-creditor
c) Agent principal
d) Principal-agent

97. The base rate is set by?
a) Individual banks
b) RBI
c) Government of India
d)RBI in consultation with Government

98. State Bank of India's new floating rate of deposit is directly linked to?
a) Inflation Rate
b) BPLR
c) Base Rate
d) BankRate

99. Six private sector banks were nationalised on April 15, 1980, whose reserves were more than?
a) 100 Crores
b) Rs. 200 crores
c) 300 crores
d) 400 crores

100. Security printing press was established in 1982 at?
a) Kolkata
b) New Delhi
c) Bombay
d) Hyderabad

Answers

1) d 2) c 3) d 4) d 5) d 6) c 7) b 8) d 9) a 10) c
11) c 12) b 13) d 14) c 15) d 16) d 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) c
21) d 22) c 23) d 24) a 25) c 26) a 27) d 28) c 29) b 30) d
31) d 32) a 33) c 34) d 35) c 36) d 37) c 38) b 39) a 40) c
41) c 42) d 43) d 44) c 45) a 46) b 47) b 48) d 49) c 50) a
51) a 52) d 53) a 54) d 55) c 56) d 57) c 58) a 59) a 60) d
61) c 62) d 63) d 64) a 65) d 66) d 67) b 68) a 69) a 70) b
71) c 72) b 73) b 74) a 75) a 76) c 77) d 78) d 79) c 80) a
81) c 82) a 83) c 84) d 85) d 86) d 87) b 88) d 89) d 90) b
91) a 92) b 93) b 94) c 95) b 96) b 97) a 98) c 99) b 100) d

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HIGHEST,OLDEST,LOWEST PLACES,ORG IN INDIA


Highest Airport- Leh Air Port in Ladakh (3256 m/ 16080 ft high)
Largest Auditorium- Sri Shanmukhananda Hall, Mumbai
Largest Public Sector Bank- State Bank of india
Largest Botanical Garden - National Botanical Gardens in Kolkata
Longest River Bridge- Mahatma Gandhi Setu over the Ganga at Patna (5,575 m/ 8286 ft long)
Longest Sea Bridge- Anna Indira Gandhi Bridge connecting the island of Rameswaram with Mandapam in Tamil Nadu (2.34 km long)
Biggest Cantilever Bridge- Rabindra Setu (also called Howrah Bridge), Hoogli river in Kolkata (457 m/1499 ft long)
Longest Canal- Indira Gandhi Canal or Rajasthan Canal (959 km long)
Largest Cave- Amarnath (about 44 km from Pahalgam in Jammu and Kashmir)
Largest Cave Temple- Ellora (Maharashtra)
Oldest Church- St Thomas Church at Palayar in Trichur district in Kerala built in 52 AD.
Largest Church- Se Cathedral at old Goa, 10 km from Panaji.
Most Populous City- Mumbai
Longest Corridor- Corridor in Ramanathaswamy Temple at Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu ( 1220 m /4002 ft long)
Highest Dam- Bhakra Dam on Sutlej river in Punjab (226 m/ 738 ft high and 518 m/ 1699 ft long)
Longest Dam- Hirakund Dam on Mahanadi river in Orissa (24.4 km long)
Largest Delta- Sunderbans (75,000 sq km) formed by the Ganga and Brahmaputra in West Bengal and Bangladesh.
Largest Dome- Gol Gumbuz, Bijapur in Karnataka.
Highest Gateway Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri near Agra. Built by Akbar (53.5 m /175 ft High)
Longest Glacier- Siachen Glacier on the Indo-pakistan border (75.6 km long and 2.8 km wide)
Largest Gurudwara- Golden Temple at Amritsar
Highest Hydel Power Station- Rongtong Hydel Project in Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh.
Largest Lake- Wular lake, Kashmir
Largest Fresh Water Lake-Kolleru in Andhra Pradesh
Largest Library- National Library, Kolkata
Oldest Monastery- Buddhist Monastery, (situated at an altitude of 3,048 m /10,000 ft) at Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh.
Largest Mosque- Jama Masjid , Delhi (built by Shah Jahan in 1644-58)
Highest Mountain Peak- Kanchenjunga
Largest Museum- Indian Museum, Kolkata.
Largest Planetarium- Birla Planetarium, Kolkata.
Largest Prison- Tihar Jail, Delhi
Longest Railway Bridge- Dehri-on-Sone Railway bridge over the Sone river near Sasaram on Kolkata-Delhi main line Longest Passenger Train Route Jammu Tawi-Kanyakumari (3730 km) Fastest Train Shatabdi Express between New Delhi and Bhopal at a speed on 140 kmph
Longest Railway Platform- Kharagpur in West Bengal (833 m /2733 ft). Also world's longest Largest Refinery IOC Refinery at Koyah (Gujarat)
Largest Tribe- Gond
Largest Concentration of Scheduled Tribes- Madhya Pradesh
Largest Scheduled Caste- Community Chamar
Longest River- Ganga (2640 km long)
Longest Road- Grand Trunk Road from Kolkata to Delhi
Highest Road- Road at Khardungla in the Leh-Manali Sector
Largest State in Area- Rajasthan
Smallest State in Area- Goa
Most Populated State- Uttar Pradesh
Least Populated State- Sikkim
Most Densely Populated State- West Bengal
Least Densely Populated State- Arunachal Pradesh
Most Literate State- Kerala .
Most Women State- Kerala
Tallest Statue- Statue of Jain Saint Gomateswara at Sravanabelagola in Karnataka.
Largest Stupa- Great Stupa of Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh
Largest Tunnel- Jawahar Tunnel, Banihal Pass (Jammu and Kashmir) Largest Union Territory in Area- Andaman and Nicobar Island (8,249 sq km)
Smallest Union Territory in Area- Lakshadweep (32 sq km)
Most Populated Union Territory- Delhi (1,37, 82,976) Least Populated Union Territory- Lakshadweep (60,595)
Most Literate Union Territory- Lakshadweep
Highest Waterfall- Jog Waterfall, Karnataka
Largest Zoo- Zoological Gardens, Kolkata


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Changed Names of Cities, States and Countries




Old Name- New Name
Abyssinia- Ethiopia
Angora- Ankara
Aurgangabad- Sambhaji Nagar
Banaras- Varanasi
Baroda- Vadodara
Batavia- Jakarta
Basutoland- Lesothe
Bachunaland: Bostwana
Bombay- Mumbai
British Guiana- Guyana
Burma- Myanmar
Calicut - Kozhikode
Cape Canaveral- Cape Kennedy
Cawnpore- Kanpur
Ceylon- Sri Lanka
Central Provinces- Madhya Pradesh
Christina- Oslo
Cochin- Kochi
Congo- Zaire
Constantinople- Istanbul
Dacca- Dhaka
Dahomey- Benin
Dutch East Indies- Indonesia
Dutch Guyana- Suriname
East Timor- Loro Sae
Egypt- United Arab Republic
Ellice Islands- Tuvalu
Formosa- Taiwan
Gauhati- Guwahati
Gold Coast- Ghana
Holland- The Netherlands
Ivory Coast- Cote D' Ivoire
Japan- Nippon
Jubbulpore- Jabalpur
Jullundur- Jalandhar
Leopildville- Kinshasa
Madagascar- Malagasy
Madras- Chennai
Malaya- Malaysia
Manchukuo- Manchuria
Mesopotamia- Iraq
New Hebrides- Vanuatu
Northern Rhodesia- Zambia
Nyasaland- Malawi
Ooty- Udhagamandalam
Panjim- Panaji
Peking- Beijing
Petrograd- Leningrad
Persia- Iran
Poona- Pune
Quilon- Kollam
Rangoon- Yangon
Rhodesia (Southern)- Zimbabwe
Saigon- Ho Chi Minh City
Salisburg- Harare
Sandwich Islands- Hawaiian Islands
Siam- Thailand
Simla- Shimla
South West Africa- Narnibia
Spanish Guinea- Equatorial Guinea
Stalingrad- Volgograd
Tanganyka and Zanzibar- Tanzania
Tanjore- Thanjavur
Trichur- Thrissur
Trivandrum- Thiruvananthapuram
United Provinces- Uttar Pradesh
Upper Volta- Bourkina Faso
Vizagapatnam- Visakhapatnam

  • Capital
    Capital Funds
    Equity contribution of owners. The basic approach of capital adequacy framework is that a bank should have sufficient capital to provide a stable resource to absorb any losses arising from the risks in its business. Capital is divided into different tiers according to the characteristics / qualities of each qualifying instrument. For supervisory purposes capital is split into two categories: Tier I and Tier II.
    Tier I Capital
    A term used to refer to one of the components of regulatory capital. It consists mainly of share capital and disclosed reserves (minus goodwill, if any). Tier I items are deemed to be of the highest quality because they are fully available to cover losses Hence it is also termed as core capital.
    Tier II Capital
    Refers to one of the components of regulatory capital. Also known as supplementary capital, it consists of certain reserves and certain types of subordinated debt. Tier II items qualify as regulatory capital to the extent that they can be used to absorb losses arising from a bank's activities. Tier II's capital loss absorption capacity is lower than that of Tier I capital.
    Revaluation reserves
    Revaluation reserves are a part of Tier-II capital. These reserves arise from revaluation of assets that are undervalued on the bank's books, typically bank premises and marketable securities. The extent to which the revaluation reserves can be relied upon as a cushion for unexpected losses depends mainly upon the level of certainty that can be placed on estimates of the market values of the relevant assets and the subsequent deterioration in values under difficult market conditions or in a forced sale.
    Leverage
    Ratio of assets to capital.
    Capital reserves
    That portion of a company's profits not paid out as dividends to shareholders. They are also known as undistributable reserves and are ploughed back into the business.
    Deferred Tax Assets
    Unabsorbed depreciation and carry forward of losses which can be set-off against future taxable income which is considered as timing differences result in deferred tax assets. The deferred Tax Assets are accounted as per the Accounting Standard 22.
    Deferred Tax Liabilities
    Deferred tax liabilities have an effect of increasing future year's income tax payments, which indicates that they are accrued income taxes and meet definition of liabilities.
    Subordinated debt
    Refers to the status of the debt. In the event of the bankruptcy or liquidation of the debtor, subordinated debt only has a secondary claim on repayments, after other debt has been repaid.
    Hybrid debt capital instruments
    In this category, fall a number of capital instruments, which combine certain characteristics of equity and certain characteristics of debt. Each has a particular feature, which can be considered to affect its quality as capital. Where these instruments have close similarities to equity, in particular when they are able to support losses on an ongoing basis without triggering liquidation, they may be included in Tier II capital.
    BASEL Committee on Banking Supervision
    The BASEL Committee is a committee of bank supervisors consisting of members from each of the G10 countries. The Committee is a forum for discussion on the handling of specific supervisory problems. It coordinates the sharing of supervisory responsibilities among national authorities in respect of banks' foreign establishments with the aim of ensuring effective supervision of banks' activities worldwide.
    BASEL Capital accord
    The BASEL Capital Accord is an Agreement concluded among country representatives in 1988 to develop standardised risk-based capital requirements for banks across countries. The Accord was replaced with a new capital adequacy framework (BASEL II), published in June 2004. BASEL II is based on three mutually reinforcing pillars hat allow banks and supervisors to evaluate properly the various risks that banks face. These three pillars are:
     Minimum capital requirements, which seek to refine the present measurement framework
     supervisory review of an institution's capital adequacy and internal assessment process;
     market discipline through effective disclosure to encourage safe and sound banking practices
    Risk Weighted Asset
    The notional amount of the asset is multiplied by the risk weight assigned to the asset to arrive at the risk weighted asset number. Risk weight for different assets vary e.g. 0% on a Government Dated Security and 20% on a AAA rated foreign bank etc.
    CRAR(Capital to Risk Weighted Assets Ratio)
    Capital to risk weighted assets ratio is arrived at by dividing the capital of the bank with aggregated risk weighted assets for credit risk, market risk and operational risk. The higher the CRAR of a bank the better capitalized it is.
    Credit Risk
    The risk that a party to a contractual agreement or transaction will be unable to meet its obligations or will default on commitments. Credit risk can be associated with almost any financial transaction. BASEL-II provides two options for measurement of capital charge for credit risk
    1.standardised approach (SA) - Under the SA, the banks use a risk-weighting schedule for measuring the credit risk of its assets by assigning risk weights based on the rating assigned by the external credit rating agencies.
    2. Internal rating based approach (IRB) - The IRB approach, on the other hand, allows banks to use their own internal ratings of counterparties and exposures, which permit a finer differentiation of risk for various exposures and hence delivers capital requirements that are better aligned to the degree of risks. The IRB approaches are of two types:
    a) Foundation IRB (FIRB): The bank estimates the Probability of Default (PD) associated with each borrower, and the supervisor supplies other inputs such as Loss Given Default (LGD) and Exposure At Default (EAD).
    b) Advanced IRB (AIRB): In addition to Probability of Default (PD), the bank estimates other inputs such as EAD and LGD. The requirements for this approach are more exacting. The adoption of advanced approaches would require the banks to meet minimum requirements relating to internal ratings at the outset and on an ongoing basis such as those relating to the design of the rating system, operations, controls, corporate governance, and estimation and validation of credit risk components, viz., PD for both FIRB and AIRB and LGD and EAD for AIRB. The banks should have, at the minimum, PD data for five years and LGD and EAD data for seven years. In India, banks have been advised to compute capital requirements for credit risk adopting the SA.
    Market risk
    Market risk is defined as the risk of loss arising from movements in market prices or rates away from the rates or prices set out in a transaction or agreement. The capital charge for market risk was introduced by the BASEL Committee on Banking Supervision through the Market Risk Amendment of January 1996 to the capital accord of 1988 (BASEL I Framework). There are two methodologies available to estimate the capital requirement to cover market risks:
    1) The Standardised Measurement Method: This method, currently implemented by the Reserve Bank, adopts a ‘building block’ approach for interest-rate related and equity instruments which differentiate capital requirements for ‘specific risk’ from those of ‘general market risk’. The ‘specific risk charge’ is designed to protect against an adverse movement in the price of an individual security due to factors related to the individual issuer. The ‘general market risk charge’ is designed to protect against the interest rate risk in the portfolio.
    2) The Internal Models Approach (IMA): This method enables banks to use their proprietary in-house method which must meet the qualitative and quantitative criteria set out by the BCBS and is subject to the explicit approval of the supervisory authority.
    Operational Risk
    The revised BASEL II framework offers the following three approaches for estimating capital charges for operational risk:
    1) The Basic Indicator Approach (BIA): This approach sets a charge for operational risk as a fixed percentage ("alpha factor") of a single indicator, which serves as a proxy for the bank’s risk exposure.
    2) The Standardised Approach (SA): This approach requires that the institution separate its operations into eight standard business lines, and the capital charge for each business line is calculated by multiplying gross income of that business line by a factor (denoted beta) assigned to that business line.
    3) Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA): Under this approach, the regulatory capital requirement will equal the risk measure generated by the banks’ internal operational risk measurement system. In India, the banks have been advised to adopt the BIA to estimate the capital charge for operational risk and 15% of average gross income of last three years is taken for calculating capital charge for operational risk.
    Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process (ICAAP)
    In terms of the guidelines on BASEL II, the banks are required to have a board-approved policy on internal capital adequacy assessment process (ICAAP) to assess the capital requirement as per ICAAP at the solo as well as consolidated level. The ICAAP is required to form an integral part of the management and decision-making culture of a bank. ICAAP document is required to clearly demarcate the quantifiable and qualitatively assessed risks. The ICAAP is also required to include stress tests and scenario analyses, to be conducted periodically, particularly in respect of the bank’s material risk exposures, in order to evaluate the potential vulnerability of the bank to some unlikely but plausible events or movements in the market conditions that could have an adverse impact on the bank’s capital.
    Supervisory Review Process (SRP)
    Supervisory review process envisages the establishment of suitable risk management systems in banks and their review by the supervisory authority. The objective of the SRP is to ensure that the banks have adequate capital to support all the risks in their business as also to encourage them to develop and use better risk management techniques for monitoring and managing their risks.
    Market Discipline
    Market Discipline seeks to achieve increased transparency through expanded disclosure requirements for banks.
    Credit risk mitigation
    Techniques used to mitigate the credit risks through exposure being collateralised in whole or in part with cash or securities or guaranteed by a third party.
    Mortgage Back Security
    A bond-type security in which the collateral is provided by a pool of mortgages. Income from the underlying mortgages is used to meet interest and principal repayments.
    Derivative
    A derivative instrument derives its value from an underlying product. There are basically three derivatives
    a) Forward Contract- A forward contract is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an agreed amount of a commodity or financial instrument at an agreed price, for delivery on an agreed future date. Future Contract- Is a standardized exchange tradable forward contract executed at an exchange. In contrast to a futures contract, a forward contract is not transferable or exchange tradable, its terms are not standardized and no margin is exchanged. The buyer of the forward contract is said to be long on the contract and the seller is said to be short on the contract.
    b) Options- An option is a contract which grants the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to buy (call option) or sell (put option) an asset, commodity, currency or financial instrument at an agreed rate (exercise price) on or before an agreed date (expiry or settlement date). The buyer pays the seller an amount called the premium in exchange for this right. This premium is the price of the option.
    c) Swaps- Is an agreement to exchange future cash flow at pre-specified Intervals. Typically one cash flow is based on a variable price and other on affixed one.
    Duration
    Duration (Macaulay duration) measures the price volatility of fixed income securities. It is often used in the comparison of interest rate risk between securities with different coupons and different maturities. It is defined as the weighted average time to cash flows of a bond where the weights are nothing but the present value of the cash flows themselves. It is expressed in years. The duration of a fixed income security is always shorter than its term to maturity, except in the case of zero coupon securities where they are the same.
    Modified Duration
    Modified Duration = Macaulay Duration/ (1+y/m), where ‘y’ is the yield (%), ‘m’ is the number of times compounding occurs in a year. For example if interest is paid twice a year m=2. Modified Duration is a measure of the percentage change in price of a bond for a 1% change in yield.
    Non Performing Assets (NPA)
    An asset, including a leased asset, becomes non performing when it ceases to generate income for the bank.
    Net NPA
    Gross NPA – (Balance in Interest Suspense account + DICGC/ECGC claims received and held pending adjustment + Part payment received and kept in suspense account + Total provisions held).
    Coverage Ratio
    Equity minus net NPA divided by total assets minus intangible assets.
    Slippage Ratio
    (Fresh accretion of NPAs during the year/Total standard assets at the beginning of the year)*100
    Restructuring
    A restructured account is one where the bank, grants to the borrower concessions that the bank would not otherwise consider. Restructuring would normally involve modification of terms of the advances/securities, which would generally include, among others, alteration of repayment period/ repayable amount/ the amount of installments and rate of interest. It is a mechanism to nurture an otherwise viable unit, which has been adversely impacted, back to health.
    Substandard Assets
    A substandard asset would be one, which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months. Such an asset will have well defined credit weaknesses that jeopardize the liquidation of the debt and are characterised by the distinct possibility that the banks will sustain some loss, if deficiencies are not corrected.
    Doubtful Asset
    An asset would be classified as doubtful if it has remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months. A loan classified as doubtful has all the weaknesses inherent in assets that were classified as substandard, with the added characteristic that the weaknesses make collection or liquidation in full, - on the basis of currently known facts, conditions and values - highly questionable and improbable.
    Doubtful Asset
    An asset would be classified as doubtful if it has remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months. A loan classified as doubtful has all the weaknesses inherent in assets that were classified as substandard, with the added characteristic that the weaknesses make collection or liquidation in full, - on the basis of currently known facts, conditions and values - highly questionable and improbable.
    Loss Asset
    A loss asset is one where loss has been identified by the bank or internal or external auditors or the RBI inspection but the amount has not been written off wholly. In other words, such an asset is considered uncollectible and of such little value that its continuance as a bankable asset is not warranted although there may be some salvage or recovery value.
    Off Balance Sheet Exposure
    Off-Balance Sheet exposures refer to the business activities of a bank that generally do not involve booking assets (loans) and taking deposits. Off-balance sheet activities normally generate fees, but produce liabilities or assets that are deferred or contingent and thus, do not appear on the institution's balance sheet until and unless they become actual assets or liabilities.
    Current Exposure Method
    The credit equivalent amount of a market related off-balance sheet transaction is calculated using the current exposure method by adding the current credit exposure to the potential future credit exposure of these contracts. Current credit exposure is defined as the sum of the positive mark to market value of a contract. The Current Exposure Method requires periodical calculation of the current credit exposure by marking the contracts to market, thus capturing the current credit exposure. Potential future credit exposure is determined by multiplying the notional principal amount of each of these contracts irrespective of whether the contract has a zero, positive or negative mark-to-market value by the relevant add-on factor prescribed by RBI, according to the nature and residual maturity of the instrument.


    Earnings
    Total income
    Sum of interest/discount earned, commission, exchange, brokerage and other operating income.
    Total operating expenses
    Sum of interest expended, staff expenses and other overheads.
    Operating profit before provisions
    Net of total income and total operating expenses.
    Net operating profit
    Operating profit before provision minus provision for loan losses, depreciation in investments, write off and other provisions.
    Profit before tax (PBT)
    (Net operating profit +/- realized gains/losses on sale of assets)
    Profit after tax (PAT)
    Profit before tax – provision for tax.
    Retained earnings
    Profit after tax – dividend paid/proposed.
    Average Yield
    (Interest and discount earned/average interest earning assets)*100
    Average cost
    (Interest expended on deposits and borrowings/Average interest bearing liabilities)*100
    Return on Asset (ROA)- After Tax
    Return on Assets (ROA) is a profitability ratio which indicates the net profit (net income) generated on total assets. It is computed by dividing net income by average total assets. Formula- (Profit after tax/Av. Total assets)*100
    Return on equity (ROE)- After Tax
    Return on Equity (ROE) is a ratio relating net profit (net income) to shareholders’ equity. Here the equity refers to share capital reserves and surplus of the bank. Formula- Profit after tax/(Total equity + Total equity at the end of previous year)/2}*100
    Accretion to equity
    (Retained earnings/Total equity at the end of previous year)*100
    Net Non-Interest Income
    The differential (surplus or deficit) between non-interest income and non-interest expenses as a percentage to average total assets.
    Net Interest Income ( NII)
    The NII is the difference between the interest income and the interest expenses.
    Net Interest Margin
    Net interest margin is the net interest income divided by average interest earning assets.
    Cost income ratio (Efficiency ratio)
    The cost income ratio reflects the extent to which non-interest expenses of a bank make a charge on the net total income (total income – interest expense). The lower the ratio, the more efficient is the bank. Formula: Non interest expenditure / Net Total Income * 100.


    Funds and Investment
    CASA Deposit
    Deposit in bank in current and Savings account.
    High Cost Deposit
    Deposits accepted above card rate (for the deposits) of the bank.
    Liquid Assets
    Liquid assets consists of: cash, balances with RBI, balances in current accounts with banks, money at call and short notice, inter-bank placements due within 30 days and securities under “held for trading” and “available for sale” categories excluding securities that do not have ready market.
    Funding Volatility Ratio
    Liquid assets [as above] to current and savings deposits - (Higher the ratio, the better)
    Market Liability Ratio
    Inter-bank and money market deposit liabilities to Average Total Assets
    ALM
    Asset Liability Management (ALM) is concerned with strategic balance sheet management involving all market risks. It also deals with liquidity management, funds management, trading and capital planning.
    ALCO
    Asset-Liability Management Committee (ALCO) is a strategic decision making body, formulating and overseeing the function of asset liability management (ALM) of a bank.
    Banking Book
    The banking book comprises assests and liabilities, which are contracted basically on account of relationship or for steady income and statutory obligations and are generally held till maturity.
    Venture Capital Fund
    A fund set up for the purpose of investing in startup businesses that is perceived to have excellent growth prospects but does not have access to capital markets.
    Held Till Maturity(HTM)
    The securities acquired by the banks with the intention to hold them up to maturity.
    Held for Trading(HFT)
    Securities where the intention is to trade by taking advantage of short-term price / interest rate movements.
    Available for Sale(AFS)
    The securities available for sale are those securities where the intention of the bank is neither to trade nor to hold till maturity. These securities are valued at the fair value which is determined by reference to the best available source of current market quotations or other data relative to current value.
    Yield to maturity (YTM) or Yield
    The Yield to maturity (YTM) is the yield promised to the bondholder on the assumption that the bond will be held to maturity and coupon payments will be reinvested at the YTM. It is a measure of the return of the bond.
    Convexity
    This represents the rate of change of duration. It is the difference between actual price of a bond and the price estimated by modified duration.
    Foreign Currency Convertible Bond
    A bond issued in foreign currency abroad giving the investor the option to convert the bond into equity at a fixed conversion price or as per a pre-determined pricing formula.
    Trading Book
    Investments in trading book are held for generating profits on the short term differences in prices/yields. Held for trading (HFT) and Available for sale (AFS) category constitute trading book.
    CRR
    Cash reserve ratio is the cash parked by the banks in their specified current account maintained with RBI.
    SLR
    Statutory liquidity ratio is in the form of cash (book value), gold (current market value) and balances in unencumbered approved securities.
    Stress testing
    Stress testing is used to evaluate a bank’s potential vulnerability to certain unlikely but plausible events or movements in financial variables. The vulnerability is usually measured with reference to the bank’s profitability and /or capital adequacy.
    Scenario Analysis
    A method in which the earnings or value impact is computed for different interest rate scenario.
    LIBOR
    London Inter Bank Offered Rate. The interest rate at which banks offer to lend funds in the interbank market.
    Basis Point
    Is one hundredth of one percent. 1 basis point means 0.01%. Used for measuring change in interest rate/yield.
    Fraud
    Frauds have been classified as under, based mainly on the provisions of the Indian Penal Code
    (a) Misappropriation and criminal breach of trust.
    (b) Fraudulent encashment through forged instruments, manipulation of books of account or through fictitious accounts and conversion of property.
    (c) Unauthorised credit facilities extended for reward or for illegal gratification.
    (d) Negligence and cash shortages.
    (e) Cheating and forgery.
    (f) Irregularities in foreign exchange transactions.
    (g) Any other type of fraud not coming under the specific heads as above.


    Asset Securitisation
    Securitization
    A process by which a single asset or a pool of assets are transferred from the balance sheet of the originator (bank) to a bankruptcy remote SPV (trust) in return for an immediate cash payment.
    Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV)
    An entity which may be a trust, company or other entity constituted or established by a ‘Deed’ or ‘Agreement’ for a specific purpose.
    Bankruptcy remote
    The legal position with reference to the creation of the SPV should be such that the SPV and its assets would not be touched in case the originator of the securitization goes bankrupt and its assets are liquidated.
    Credit enhancement
    These are the facilities offered to an SPV to cover the probable losses from the pool of securitized assets. It is a credit risk cover given by the originator or a third party and meant for the investors in any securitization process.
    Custodian
    An entity, usually a bank that actually holds the receivables as agent and bailee of the trustee.
    First loss facility
    First level of credit enhancement offered to an SPV as part of the process in bringing the securities issued by SPV to investment grade.
    Second loss facility
    Credit enhancement providing the second or subsequent tier of protection to an SPV against potential losses.
    Value at Risk (VAR)
    VAR is a single number (currency amount) which estimates the maximum expected loss of a portfolio over a given time horizon (the holding period) and at a given confidence level. VaR is defined as an estimate of potential loss in a position or asset/liability or portfolio of assets/liabilities over a given holding period at a given level of certainty. The following are the three main methodologies used to calculate VaR: Parametric Estimates – Estimates VaR using parameters such as volatility and correlation. Accurate for traditional assets and linear derivatives, but less accurate for non linear derivatives. Monte Carlo simulation- Estimates VaR by simulating random scenarios and revaluing positions in the portfolio. Appropriate for all types of instruments, linear and nonlinear. Historical simulation- Estimates VaR by reliving history; takes actual historical rates and revalues positions for each change in the market
    Commercial real estate
    commercial real estate is defined as “fund based and non-fund based exposures secured by mortgages on commercial real estates (office buildings, retail space, multi-purpose commercial premises, multi-family residential buildings, multi-tenanted commercial premises, industrial or warehouse space, hotels, land acquisition, development and construction etc.)”

    NDS-OM Web
    Primary Member (PM)
    A member of NDS-OM (having Constituent Subsidiary General Ledger (CSGL) and current account with RBI) who authorizes their Gilt Account Holders to have direct access to the web enabled NDS-OM system.
    Gilt Account Holders (GAHs)
    Non-NDS members who have gilt account and current account with PMs are termed as GAHs. GAHs permitted by RBI include NBFCs, Provident Funds, Pension Funds, Mutual Funds, Insurance Companies, Cooperative Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Trusts, Corporates, Individuals etc.
    Dedicated URL ndsind.com
    Dedicated URL is a secure site, i.e., https// accessible only through deployment of requisite digital certificates and tokens (for non-repudiation of transactions). The issuance and management of digital certificates and security tokens would be the responsibility of the PM as part of GAH creation and activation process. Regular renewals thereof would also be the PM’s responsibility.
    Digital Certificates and e-tokens (PM)
    Digital certificates are digital signatures to be obtained by PM from any Government Recognized Certifying Authority designated by RBI, on behalf of GAH. For added security, the certificates need to be installed in an e-token as per specifications approved. The digital certificate and token specifications needs to be SHA 2 (2048 bit) compliant. Without the Digital certificate and e-token, the GAH cannot log in to the NDS OM web based module. The Primary member will be responsible for obtaining/renewal and intimating revocation to RBI/CCIL of the Digital Certificate for such GAH users.
    NDS OM Administrator (CCIL;  NDS OM Admin)
    The Administrator (CCIL) is the person who creates and activates the GAH in the web-based system on the request of the PM and also authorizes the employees of GAH (GAH Users created by PM) to access the system by generating login and password.
    Authorized Users of Gilt Account Holder (GAH User)
    Once GAH is created as a client of PM in the web-based system by CCIL (the NDS OM Admin), Users of GAH are created by PM and later authorized by CCIL to access and operate the system. While authorizing, CCIL generates the login ID and password for the GAH Users and forwards the same to PM. PM in turn forwards the same to GAH to enable its employees (GAH Users) to log-in to the Web Based Application (https://www.ndsind.com).
    Client Head (PM)
    The ‘Client Head’ is the super user at the PM end. Only ‘Client Head’ has privileges to perform actions like create GAH users, modify users, suspend users, unlock, log-off users, reset the login password of users, set risk limits & take action on client bids etc. Only one user is possible in every PM environment.
    ‘Transactional’ User (GAH)
    These are GAH employees (GAH Users) who are authorized by PM to place, modify, cancel their bids, view status of their bids and view the limits set by the PM & along with the current utilization.
    ‘View Only’ User (GAH)
    These are GAH employees (GAH Users) who have been provided with ‘View only’ rights by the PM. These employees have an aggregated view of all the activities and risk limits of all transactional users under the respective GAH. It also includes view of issuance details and aggregate view of bidding and allocation details of all transactional users.
    Single Order Limit (SOL) for Trades
    SOL shall mean the maximum order quantity (in terms of face value) that can be placed by the concerned user through a single order.
    Price/Yield Range Settings for Trades
    NDS-OM Web shall validate that the price/yield of every order placed by a GAH user is within the range specified by the Primary Member vis-à-vis the last traded price/yield for the concerned security in the specific market.
    Security Stock Balances Settings for Trades
    Primary Members shall update the Security Stock Balances for each of their GAH. Once input, NDS-OM shall automatically update the security balances based on activity undertaken on NDS-OM Web on the same lines as that of NDS-OM. Adequacy of available free balances for each security shall be validated before accepting a sale order(s) for any security. If the balance is not adequate, the respective sale order shall be rejected.
    Activity Control Settings for Trades
    Primary Members shall assign Buy and / or Sell privileges to each of the Transactional Users of their GAH through activity control settings.
    Funding Limits Settings for Trades
    Funding limits for trades represent the net aggregate settlement consideration amount up to which the concerned GAH can accumulate net long fund positions arising out of trades concluded on NDS-OM Web. This control shall be set for every GAH at the GAH user level. This limit constitutes a trading limit which shall get reinstated at the beginning of every trading session for every GAH.
    Turnover Limits for Trades
    Turnover limits represent the gross amount in face value terms computed by aggregating individual "buys" + "sells" orders inputted on behalf of a GAH across all its users. This value is expressed in consideration terms of the underlying security instrument and shall reflect the total aggregate value that can be undertaken by the GAH for that trading session.  This control shall be set for every GAH at the user level. This limit constitutes a trading limit which shall get reinstated at the beginning of every trading session for every GAH;

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